Circle of Learning Logo CIRCLE OF LEARNING Excellence in Education
Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2: Structure of Atom

Exercises

Q2

1. (i) Calculate the number of electrons which will together weigh one gram. (ii) Calculate the mass and charge of one mole of electrons.

Answer

(i) Mass of one electron = 9.11 × 10⁻²⁸ g; Number = 1/(9.11 × 10⁻²⁸) = 1.098 × 10²⁷ electrons

(ii) Mass = 6.022 × 10²³ × 9.11 × 10⁻²⁸ g = 5.49 × 10⁻⁴ g; Charge = 6.022 × 10²³ × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C = 9.65 × 10⁴ C (1 Faraday)

Q2

2. (i) Total electrons in 1 mol methane (CH₄). (ii)(a) total number and (b) total mass of neutrons in 7 mg of ¹⁴C. (iii)(a) total number and (b) total mass of protons in 34 mg of NH₃.

Answer

(i) CH₄ has 6+4 = 10 electrons; 1 mol CH₄ has 10 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 6.022 × 10²⁴ electrons

(ii) ¹⁴C has 8 neutrons. Moles ¹⁴C = 7×10⁻³/14 = 5×10⁻⁴ mol; (a) neutrons = 8 × 5×10⁻⁴ × 6.022×10²³ = 2.409 × 10²¹; (b) mass = 2.409×10²¹ × 1.675×10⁻²⁷ kg = 4.035 × 10⁻⁶ kg

(iii) NH₃ has 10 protons; Moles = 2×10⁻³ mol; (a) protons = 1.2044 × 10²²; (b) mass = 2.015 × 10⁻⁵ kg. Answer does not change with T and P.

Q2

3. Neutrons and protons in: ¹³C₆, ¹⁶O₈, ²⁴Mg₁₂, ⁵⁶Fe₂₆, ⁸⁸Sr₃₈

Answer

¹³C: p=6, n=7; ¹⁶O: p=8, n=8; ²⁴Mg: p=12, n=12; ⁵⁶Fe: p=26, n=30; ⁸⁸Sr: p=38, n=50

Q2

4. Write complete symbols: (i) Z=17, A=35 (ii) Z=92, A=233 (iii) Z=4, A=9

Answer

(i) ³⁵₁₇Cl; (ii) ²³³₉₂U; (iii) ⁹₄Be

Q2

5. Yellow light λ = 580 nm. Calculate frequency and wavenumber.

Answer

ν = c/λ = 3×10⁸/580×10⁻⁹ = 5.17 × 10¹⁴ Hz; wavenumber = 1/λ = 1.724 × 10⁶ m⁻¹

Q2

6. Energy of photons: (i) ν = 3×10¹⁵ Hz (ii) λ = 0.50 Å

Answer

(i) E = hν = 6.626×10⁻³⁴ × 3×10¹⁵ = 1.988 × 10⁻¹⁸ J

(ii) E = hc/λ = (6.626×10⁻³⁴ × 3×10⁸)/(0.50×10⁻¹⁰) = 3.976 × 10⁻¹⁵ J

Q2

7. Period = 2.0×10⁻¹⁰ s. Wavelength, frequency, wavenumber.

Answer

ν = 1/T = 5.0 × 10⁹ Hz; λ = c/ν = 0.06 m; wavenumber = 16.67 m⁻¹

Q2

8. Photons of λ = 4000 pm providing 1 J. How many?

Answer

E/photon = hc/λ = 4.97×10⁻¹⁷ J; N = 1/4.97×10⁻¹⁷ = 2.01 × 10¹⁶ photons

Q2

9. Photon λ = 4×10⁻⁷ m, work function = 2.13 eV: (i) energy in eV (ii) KE (iii) velocity.

Answer

(i) E = 4.97×10⁻¹⁹/1.602×10⁻¹⁹ = 3.10 eV; (ii) KE = 3.10−2.13 = 0.97 eV = 1.555×10⁻¹⁹ J; (iii) v = √(2KE/m) = 5.84 × 10⁵ m s⁻¹

Q2

10. λ = 242 nm just ionises Na. IE in kJ mol⁻¹.

Answer

E/photon = 8.21×10⁻¹⁹ J; IE = 8.21×10⁻¹⁹ × 6.022×10²³ = 494.6 kJ mol⁻¹

Q2

11. 25 W bulb, λ = 0.57 µm. Rate of quanta emission per second.

Answer

E/photon = 3.488×10⁻¹⁹ J; Rate = 25/3.488×10⁻¹⁹ = 7.17 × 10¹⁹ quanta/s

Q2

12. Electrons emitted with zero KE at λ = 6800 Å. Threshold frequency and work function.

Answer

ν₀ = 3×10⁸/6800×10⁻¹⁰ = 4.41 × 10¹⁴ Hz; W₀ = hν₀ = 2.92 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

Q2

13. Wavelength emitted for H atom n=4 → n=2 transition.

Answer

1/λ = 1.097×10⁷(1/4−1/16) = 2.057×10⁶ m⁻¹; λ = 486 nm (Balmer, blue-green)

Q2

14. Energy to ionise H from n=5. Compare with n=1.

Answer

IE from n=5 = 2.18×10⁻¹⁸/25 = 8.72 × 10⁻²⁰ J; IE from n=1 = 2.18×10⁻¹⁸ J; ratio = 25.

Q2

15. Maximum emission lines for H excited at n=6 → ground state.

Answer

Lines = n(n−1)/2 = 6×5/2 = 15

Q2

16. (i) Energy of 5th orbit (E₁ = −2.18×10⁻¹⁸ J). (ii) Radius of 5th orbit.

Answer

(i) E₅ = −2.18×10⁻¹⁸/25 = −8.72 × 10⁻²⁰ J; (ii) r₅ = 25×52.9 pm = 1322.5 pm

Q2

17. Wavenumber for longest wavelength Balmer transition.

Answer

n=2
⇒ 3: ν̄ = 1.097×10⁷×(1/4−1/9) = 1.523 × 10⁶ m⁻¹

Q2

18. Energy to shift H electron from n=1 to n=5. Wavelength on return.

Answer

ΔE = 2.09×10⁻¹⁸ J; λ = hc/ΔE = 95 nm (UV)

Q2

19. Energy to remove electron from n=2. Longest wavelength for transition.

Answer

E = 5.45×10⁻¹⁹ J; λ = hc/E = 3.65×10⁻⁷ m = 3.65 × 10⁻⁵ cm

Q2

20. Wavelength of electron, v = 2.05×10⁷ m s⁻¹.

Answer

λ = h/(mv) = 6.626×10⁻³⁴/(9.11×10⁻³¹×2.05×10⁷) = 3.55 × 10⁻¹¹ m = 355 pm

Q2

21. Electron KE = 3.0×10⁻²⁵ J. Wavelength.

Answer

v = √(2KE/m) = 812 m/s; λ = h/(mv) = 8.96 × 10⁻⁷ m = 896 nm

Q2

22. Isoelectronic species from Na⁺, K⁺, Mg²⁺, Ca²⁺, S²⁻, Ar.

Answer

Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ have 10 electrons each; K⁺, Ca²⁺, S²⁻ and Ar have 18 electrons each.

Q2

23. (i) Electronic configs of H⁻, Na⁺, O²⁻, F⁻. (ii) Z for 3s¹, 2p³, 3p⁵. (iii) Atoms for [He]2s¹, [Ne]3s²3p³, [Ar]4s²3d¹.

Answer

(i) H⁻: 1s²; Na⁺: 1s²2s²2p⁶; O²⁻: 1s²2s²2p⁶; F⁻: 1s²2s²2p⁶

(ii) Na (Z=11); N (Z=7); Cl (Z=17)

(iii) Li; P; Sc

Q2

24. Lowest n for g orbitals.

Answer

g has l=4; n ≥ l+1 = 5

Q2

25. Electron in 3d: values of n, l, ml.

Answer

n=3, l=2, ml = −2, −1, 0, +1, +2

Q2

26. Atom with 29e and 35n: (i) protons (ii) electronic configuration.

Answer

(i) Z = 29 (Cu); (ii) [Ar]3d¹⁰4s¹ (anomalous due to stability of filled 3d)

Q2

27. Electrons in H₂⁺ and H₂.

Answer

H₂⁺: 1; H₂: 2

Q2

28. (i) l and ml for n=3. (ii) QN for 3d. (iii) Possible: 1p, 2s, 2p, 3f?

Answer

(i) l=0,1,2; ml ranges accordingly. (ii) n=3, l=2, ml=−2 to +2. (iii) 2s and 2p are possible; 1p and 3f are not possible.

Q2

29. Describe orbitals: (a) n=1,l=0 (b) n=3,l=1 (c) n=4,l=2 (d) n=4,l=3

Answer

(a) 1s; (b) 3p; (c) 4d; (d) 4f

Q2

30. Which quantum number sets are not possible?

Answer

(a) Not possible: n=0 is not allowed. (b) Possible. (c) Not possible: l=1 for n=1 is not allowed. (d) Possible. (e) Not possible: l=3 for n=3 is not allowed (l must be < n). (f) Possible.

Q2

31. Electrons with (a) n=4, ms=−½ (b) n=3, l=0.

Answer

(a) n=4 has 32 electrons; half = 16. (b) 3s orbital holds 2 electrons.

Q2

32. Show Bohr orbit circumference = integral multiple of de Broglie wavelength.

Answer

From mvr = nh/2π and λ = h/(mv): 2πr = nλ. The circumference equals n de Broglie wavelengths.

Q2

33. H transition with same λ as Balmer n=4→n=2 of He⁺.

Answer

He⁺: 1/λ = 4RH(1/4−1/16) = 3RH/4. For H: same gives n₁=1, n₂=2
⇒ Lyman series

Q2

34. Energy for He⁺(g) → He²⁺(g) + e⁻.

Answer

E = Z²×IEH = 4×2.18×10⁻¹⁸ = 8.72 × 10⁻¹⁸ J atom⁻¹

Q2

35. Diameter C atom = 0.15 nm; atoms in 20 cm line.

Answer

N = 0.20/(0.15×10⁻⁹) = 1.33 × 10⁹ atoms

Q2

36. 2×10⁸ C atoms in 2.4 cm. Radius.

Answer

Diameter = 1.2×10⁻⁸ cm = 1.2×10⁻¹⁰ m; radius = 60 pm

Q2

37. Zn atom diameter = 2.6 Å: (a) radius in pm (b) atoms in 1.6 cm.

Answer

(a) 130 pm; (b) 1.6×10⁻²/(2.6×10⁻¹⁰) = 6.15 × 10⁷ atoms

Q2

38. Charge 2.5×10⁻¹⁶ C. Electrons.

Answer

N = 2.5×10⁻¹⁶/1.6×10⁻¹⁹ = 1563 electrons

Q2

39. Oil drop charge −1.282×10⁻¹⁸ C. Electrons.

Answer

N = 1.282×10⁻¹⁸/1.6×10⁻¹⁹ = 8 electrons

Q2

40. Using light atoms (Al) in Rutherford's experiment instead of gold?

Answer

Fewer large-angle deflections and backscattering — the lighter nucleus has smaller positive charge, weaker electrostatic repulsion for α-particles, so most particles pass through with less deflection.

Q2

41. Why ³⁵₇₉Br and ⁷⁹Br acceptable, ⁷⁹₃₅Br and ³⁵Br not?

Answer

Correct notation places mass number A as superscript and atomic number Z as subscript on the left of the symbol. ⁷⁹₃₅Br reverses A and Z; ³⁵Br uses Z as superscript — both violate standard notation.

Q2

42. A=81, 31.7% more neutrons than protons. Atomic symbol.

Answer

p + 1.317p = 81
⇒ p=35; Z=35 is Br
⇒ ⁸¹₃₅Br

Q2

43. Ion A=37, charge −1, 11.1% more neutrons than electrons. Symbol.

Answer

Electrons = Z+1; Z=17 (Cl); A=37
⇒ ³⁷₁₇Cl⁻

Q2

44. Ion A=56, charge 3+, 30.4% more neutrons than electrons. Symbol.

Answer

Electrons = Z−3; Z=26 (Fe) → ⁵⁶₂₆Fe³⁺

Q2

45. Increasing frequency: (a) microwave (b) amber light (c) FM radio (d) cosmic rays (e) X-rays.

Answer

FM radio < microwave < amber light < X-rays < cosmic rays

Q2

46. N₂ laser λ=337.1 nm, 5.6×10²⁴ photons. Power.

Answer

E/photon = 5.9×10⁻¹⁹ J; Total E = 5.9×10⁻¹⁹ × 5.6×10²⁴ = 3.3 × 10⁶ J

Q2

47. Neon, λ=616 nm: (a) frequency (b) distance in 30 s (c) energy per quantum (d) quanta for 2 J.

Answer

(a) 4.87 × 10¹⁴ Hz; (b) 9×10⁹ m; (c) 3.23 × 10⁻¹⁹ J; (d) 6.19 × 10¹⁸

Q2

48. Detector receives 3.15×10⁻¹⁸ J from λ=600 nm. Number of photons.

Answer

E/photon = 3.31×10⁻¹⁹ J; N = 3.15×10⁻¹⁸/3.31×10⁻¹⁹ ≈ 10 photons

Q2

49. Radiation source: 2 ns duration, 2.5×10¹⁵ photons. Energy of source.

Answer

ν = 1/(2×10⁻⁹) = 5×10⁸ Hz; E/photon = hν = 3.31×10⁻²⁵ J; Total = 3.31×10⁻²⁵ × 2.5×10¹⁵ = 8.28 × 10⁻¹⁰ J

Q2

50. Doublet absorption at 589 and 589.6 nm. Frequencies and energy difference.

Answer

ν₁ = 5.093 × 10¹⁴ Hz; ν₂ = 5.088 × 10¹⁴ Hz; ΔE = h×Δν = 6.626×10⁻³⁴ × 5×10¹¹ = 3.31 × 10⁻²² J

Q2

51. Cs work function = 1.9 eV: (a) threshold λ (b) threshold ν. At 500 nm: KE and velocity.

Answer

(a) λ₀ = hc/W₀ = 654 nm; (b) ν₀ = 4.59 × 10¹⁴ Hz; KE = (2.483−1.9)eV = 0.583 eV = 9.33 × 10⁻²⁰ J; v = 4.52 × 10⁵ m s⁻¹

Q2

52. Sodium: λ=500,450,400 nm; v=2.55,4.35,5.35 (×10⁵ cm/s). Find (a) threshold λ and (b) Planck's constant.

Answer

(b) Using two data points: h = ΔKE/(cΔ(1/λ)) ≈ 6.57 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s; (a) λ₀ ≈ 540 nm

Q2

53. Ag photoelectron stopped at 0.35 V, λ=256.7 nm. Work function.

Answer

KE = eV = 5.6×10⁻²⁰ J; E = 7.75×10⁻¹⁹ J; W₀ = E−KE = 7.19 × 10⁻¹⁹ J = 4.49 eV

Q2

54. Photon λ=150 pm ejects electron at v=1.5×10⁷ m s⁻¹. Binding energy.

Answer

Ephoton = 1.325×10⁻¹⁵ J; KE = 1.025×10⁻¹⁶ J; BE = 1.22 × 10⁻¹⁵ J

Q2

55. Paschen series at λ=1285 nm. Find n and spectral region.

Answer

1/λ = RH(1/9−1/n²); solving: 1/n² = 0.04; n=5; region: infrared

Q2

56. Emission from r=1.3225 nm to r=211.6 pm. Series and region.

Answer

n₁=5 (r=1322.5 pm), n₂=2 (r=211.6 pm); transition 5
⇒ 2: Balmer series, visible region

Q2

57. Electron v=1.6×10⁶ m s⁻¹. de Broglie wavelength.

Answer

λ = h/(mv) = 6.626×10⁻³⁴/(9.11×10⁻³¹×1.6×10⁶) = 4.55 × 10⁻¹⁰ m = 455 pm

Q2

58. Neutron diffraction λ=800 pm. Velocity.

Answer

v = h/(mλ) = 6.626×10⁻³⁴/(1.675×10⁻²⁷×800×10⁻¹²) = 494.5 m s⁻¹

Q2

59. Electron in Bohr's first orbit, v=2.19×10⁶ m s⁻¹. de Broglie wavelength.

Answer

λ = 6.626×10⁻³⁴/(9.11×10⁻³¹×2.19×10⁶) = 3.32 × 10⁻¹⁰ m = 332 pm

Q2

60. Hockey ball m=0.1 kg at v=4.37×10⁵ m s⁻¹. de Broglie wavelength.

Answer

λ = h/(mv) = 6.626×10⁻³⁴/(0.1×4.37×10⁵) = 1.52 × 10⁻³⁸ m (unmeasurably small)

Q2

61. Δx = 0.002 nm. Δp and can p = h/(4π×m×0.05 nm) be defined?

Answer

Δp ≥ h/(4πΔx) = 6.626×10⁻³⁴/(4π×2×10⁻¹²) = 2.637 × 10⁻²³ kg m s⁻¹. The stated p is smaller than Δp, so it cannot be defined simultaneously with the given position — there is a fundamental problem.

Q2

62. Arrange six electrons in increasing energy order.

Answer

Use n+l rule: (5) n=3,l=1
⇒ n+l=4 (3p); (2,4) n=3,l=2
⇒ n+l=5 (3d); (3,6) n=4,l=1
⇒ n+l=5 (4p); (1) n=4,l=2
⇒ n+l=6 (4d). For same n+l, lower n has lower energy: 3d < 4p. Order: 5 < 2 = 4 < 3 = 6 < 1. Note: 3 and 6 share identical quantum numbers, violating Pauli exclusion.

Q2

63. Br: 2p, 3p, 4p electrons. Which has lowest effective nuclear charge?

Answer

4p electrons — they are outermost and most shielded.

Q2

64. Larger effective nuclear charge: (i) 2s or 3s (ii) 4d or 4f (iii) 3d or 3p?

Answer

(i) 2s; (ii) 4d; (iii) 3p

Q2

65. Al and Si 3p electrons: which sees higher effective nuclear charge?

Answer

Si (Z=14 vs Al Z=13, similar shielding)

Q2

66. Unpaired electrons in: (a) P (b) Si (c) Cr (d) Fe (e) Kr

Answer

(a) 3; (b) 2; (c) 6; (d) 4; (e) 0

Q2

67. (a) Subshells for n=4. (b) Electrons with ms=−½ for n=4.

Answer

(a) 4 subshells (4s, 4p, 4d, 4f); (b) Total 32 electrons; half = 16

Important Extra Questions

Q1

What are the limitations of Bohr's model?

Answer

Bohr's model fails to explain: spectra of multi-electron atoms; fine structure of spectral lines; the Zeeman effect; de Broglie's wave nature of electrons; and the Heisenberg uncertainty principle. It incorrectly assumes electrons move in fixed circular orbits.

Q2

State Heisenberg's uncertainty principle and its significance.

Answer

Δx·Δp ≥ h/4π — the position and momentum of a particle cannot both be precisely known simultaneously. For electrons, this means we cannot speak of fixed orbits; instead we describe probability regions (orbitals).

Q3

What is the aufbau principle?

Answer

Electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy. The (n+l) rule gives energy order; for same (n+l), lower n is lower energy. Sequence: 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p…

Q4

State Hund's rule with an example.

Answer

Pairing occurs only after each orbital in a subshell is singly occupied. Nitrogen (Z=7): 2px¹2py¹2pz¹ with parallel spins, not 2px²2py¹.

Q5

Electronic configuration of Cu (Z=29) and reason for anomaly.

Answer

Cu: [Ar]3d¹⁰4s¹ (not 3d⁹4s²). A completely filled 3d subshell is extra stable due to symmetrical electron distribution and maximum exchange energy. One electron shifts from 4s to complete the 3d subshell.

Frequently Asked Questions

What do these NCERT solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 (Structure of Atom) cover?

All 72 questions from the latest NCERT textbook for this chapter are answered step by step, organised as Exercises and Important Extra Questions.

Are these solutions based on the new NCERT syllabus?

Yes. The answers follow the current NCERT textbook for Class 11 Chemistry and the latest CBSE syllabus, so the question numbers and wording match the book you use in class.

How should I use these solutions to prepare for exams?

Attempt each question on your own first, then compare your working with the answer here. Note the steps or keywords you missed, and revise the chapter notes before taking a chapter-wise MCQ test to check your understanding.

Are the NCERT solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 (Structure of Atom) free?

Yes. All Circle of Learning NCERT solutions and chapter notes are free to read online, with no sign-up needed.